[Jan 10, 2025] Pass Isaca Certificaton CRISC Exam With 1478 Questions
Ultimate Guide to Prepare Free ISACA CRISC Exam Questions and Answer
NEW QUESTION # 559
When reviewing management's IT control self-assessments, a risk practitioner noted an ineffective control that links to several low residual risk scenarios. What should be the NEXT course of action?
- A. Re-evaluate the risk scenarios associated with the control
- B. Recommend management accept the low risk scenarios.
- C. Assess management's risk tolerance.
- D. Propose mitigating controls
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 560
Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the effectiveness of a disaster recovery plan (DRP)?
- A. Percentage of applications that met the RTO during DRP testing
- B. Percentage of issues resolved as a result of DRP testing
- C. Number of users that participated in the DRP testing
- D. Number of issues identified during DRP testing
Answer: A
Explanation:
A key performance indicator (KPI) is a measurable value that demonstrates how effectively an organization is achieving its objectives. In the context of disaster recovery planning (DRP), a KPI should reflect the ability of the organization to recover its critical business processes and applications within the predefined time frames and service levels. One of the most important KPIs for DRP is the percentage of applications that met the recovery time objective (RTO) during DRP testing. The RTO is the maximum acceptable length of time that a business process or application can be down after a disaster. By measuring the percentage of applications that met the RTO during DRP testing, the organization can evaluate the performance and reliability of its DRP, identify any gaps or weaknesses, and implement corrective actions to improve its readiness and resilience. The other options are not the best KPIs for DRP, as they do not directly measure the effectiveness of the recovery process. The number of users that participated in the DRP testing is a measure of the involvement and awareness of the staff, but not of the outcome of the testing. The number of issues identified during DRP testing is a measure of the quality and completeness of the DRP, but not of the actual recovery time. The percentage of issues resolved as a result of DRP testing is a measure of the improvement and maturity of the DRP, but not of the current recovery capability. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 3, Section 3.2.3.3, Page 138.
NEW QUESTION # 561
Which of the following is MOST important to the effectiveness of a senior oversight committee for risk monitoring?
- A. Key risk indicators (KRIs)
- B. Organizational risk appetite
- C. Cross-business representation
- D. Risk governance charter
Answer: C
Explanation:
Cross-business representation is most important to the effectiveness of a senior oversight committee for risk monitoring. Here's a detailed explanation:
* Importance of Cross-business Representation:
* Comprehensive Risk Perspective: Having representatives from different business units ensures that the committee has a comprehensive view of risks across the entire organization. This diverse representation helps in identifying and assessing risks that may impact various parts of the business differently.
* Informed Decision-Making: Members from different business areas can provide unique insights and expertise, leading to more informed and balanced decision-making processes.
* Improved Communication: Cross-business representation facilitates better communication and collaboration across the organization, ensuring that risk management practices are understood and implemented consistently.
* Comparison with Other Options:
* Key Risk Indicators (KRIs): While important for monitoring specific risks, KRIs alone do not ensure the effectiveness of the oversight committee without a diverse representation to interpret and act on these indicators.
* Risk Governance Charter: A risk governance charter outlines the roles, responsibilities, and processes for risk management, but its effectiveness depends on the active participation of diverse business representatives.
* Organizational Risk Appetite: Understanding the organizational risk appetite is crucial, but without cross-business representation, the risk appetite may not be appropriately reflected or acted upon across all business areas.
* Best Practices:
* Diverse Membership: Ensure that the oversight committee includes members from all key business units and functions to provide a holistic view of organizational risks.
* Regular Meetings: Schedule regular meetings to review and discuss risk management activities, KRIs, and emerging risks with input from all representatives.
* Clear Communication: Establish clear communication channels between the oversight committee and business units to ensure that risk management practices are effectively implemented and monitored.
* CRISC Review Manual: Emphasizes the importance of cross-functional representation in risk governance to ensure comprehensive risk management.
* ISACA Risk Management Framework: Highlights the need for diverse perspectives in risk oversight committees to enhance the effectiveness of risk monitoring and decision-making.
References:Top of Form
Bottom of Form
NEW QUESTION # 562
You are the project manager in your enterprise. You have identified risk that is noticeable failure threatening the success of certain goals of your enterprise. In which of the following levels do this identified risk exists?
- A. Moderate risk
- B. Explanation:
Moderate risks are noticeable failure threatening the success of certain goals. - C. is incorrect. High risk is the significant failure impacting in certain goals not being met.
- D. High risk
- E. is incorrect. Extremely high risk are the risks that has large impact on enterprise and
are most likely results in failure with severe consequences. - F. Low risk
- G. Extremely high risk
Answer: A
Explanation:
is incorrect. Low risks are the risk that results in certain unsuccessful goals.
NEW QUESTION # 563
Which of the following is MOST important to include in a Software as a Service (SaaS) vendor agreement?
- A. A service level agreement (SLA)
- B. An annual contract review
- C. A requirement to adopt an established risk management framework
- D. A requirement to provide an independent audit report
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 564
Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the effectiveness of a disaster recovery plan (DRP)?
- A. Percentage of applications that met the RTO during DRP testing
- B. Percentage of issues related as a result of DRP testing
- C. Number of users that participated in the DRP testing
- D. Number of issues identified during DRP testing
Answer: A
Explanation:
Section: Volume D
NEW QUESTION # 565
Which of the following is the BEST way of managing risk inherent to wireless network?
- A. Enable auditing on every connection to the wireless network
- B. Enabling auditing on every host that connects to a wireless network
- C. Require private, key-based encryption to connect to the wireless network
- D. Require that every host that connect to this network have a well-tested recovery plan
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
As preventive control and prevention is preferred over detection and recovery, therefore, private and key- based encryption should be adopted for managing risks.
Incorrect Answers:
A, C, D: As explained in above section preventive control and prevention is preferred over detection and recovery, hence these are less preferred way.
NEW QUESTION # 566
Following a significant change to a business process, a risk practitioner believes the associated risk has been reduced. The risk practitioner should advise the risk owner to FIRST:
- A. review the key risk indicators
- B. update the risk register
- C. conduct a risk analysis
- D. reallocate risk response resources
Answer: C
Explanation:
Section: Volume D
Explanation/Reference:
NEW QUESTION # 567
Which of the following is MOST important to include in a risk assessment of an emerging technology?
- A. Impact and likelihood ratings
- B. Risk and control ownership
- C. Risk response plans
- D. Key controls
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 568
Wendy has identified a risk event in her project that has an impact of $75,000 and a 60 percent chance of happening. Through research, her project team learns that the risk impact can actually be reduced to just
$15,000 with only a ten percent chance of occurring. The proposed solution will cost $25,000. Wendy agrees to the $25,000 solution. What type of risk response is this?
- A. Transference
- B. Mitigation
- C. Avoidance
- D. Enhancing
Answer: B
Explanation:
Section: Volume C
Explanation:
Risk mitigation implies a reduction in the probability and/or impact of an adverse risk event to be within acceptable threshold limits. Taking early actions to reduce the probability and/or impact of a risk occurring on the project is often more effective than trying to repair the damage after the risk has occurred.
Incorrect Answers:
B: Avoidance changes the project plan to avoid the risk altogether.
C: Transference requires shifting some or all of the negative impacts of a threat, along with the ownership of the response, to a third party. Transferring the risk simply gives another party the responsibility for its management-it does not eliminate it.
Transferring the liability for a risk is most effective in dealing with financial risk exposure. Risk transference nearly always involves payment of a risk premium to the party taking on the risk.
D: Enhancing is actually a positive risk response. This strategy is used to increase the probability and/or the positive impact of an opportunity. Identifying and maximizing the key drivers of these positive-impact risks may increase the probability of their occurrence.
NEW QUESTION # 569
When updating the risk register after a risk assessment, which of the following is MOST important to include?
- A. Cost to reduce the impact and likelihood
- B. Likelihood and impact of the risk scenario
- C. Historical losses due to past risk events
- D. Actor and threat type of the risk scenario
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 570
When of the following is the MOST significant exposure when an application uses individual user accounts to access the underlying database?
- A. Multiple connects to the database are used and slow the process
- B. Users may be able to circumvent application controls.
- C. Application may not capture a complete audit trail.
- D. Users may share accounts with business system analyst
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 571
You are the project manager of the NKJ Project for your company. The project's success or failure will have a significant impact on your organization's profitability for the coming year. Management has asked you to identify the risk events and communicate the event's probability and impact as early as possible in the project. Management wants to avoid risk events and needs to analyze the cost-benefits of each risk event in this project. What term is assigned to the low-level of stakeholder tolerance in this project?
- A. Risk utility function
- B. Mitigation-ready project management
- C. Risk avoidance
- D. Risk-reward mentality
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Risk utility function is assigned to the low-level of stakeholder tolerance in this project.
The risk utility function describes a person's or organization's willingness to accept risk. It is synonymous with stakeholder tolerance to risk.
Risk utility function facilitates the selection and acceptance of risk and provides opportunity to merge the approach with setting thresholds of risk acceptability and using utility-risk ratios if necessary.
Incorrect Answers:
A: This is not a valid project management and risk management term.
B: Risk avoidance is a risk response to avoid negative risk events.
D: Risk-reward describes the balance between accepting risks and the expected reward for the risk event.
Risk-reward mentality is not a valid project management term.
NEW QUESTION # 572
An IT license audit has revealed that there are several unlicensed copies of co be to:
- A. procure the requisite licenses for the software to minimize business impact.
- B. immediately uninstall the unlicensed software from the laptops
- C. report the issue to management so appropriate action can be taken.
- D. centralize administration rights on laptops so that installations are controlled
Answer: C
Explanation:
An IT license audit is a process that verifies the compliance of the IT software and hardware assets with the licensing agreements and regulations. An IT license audit can reveal the existence of unlicensed copies of software, which can expose the enterprise to legal, financial, and reputational risks. The best course of action in such a situation is to report the issue to management so that appropriate action can be taken. Management can then decide on the most suitable risk response strategy, such as procuring the necessary licenses, uninstalling the unlicensed software, or negotiating with the software vendor. Reporting the issue to management can also help to prevent further violations, identify the root causes, and implement corrective and preventive measures. The other options are not the best course of action, as they may not address the issue effectively, efficiently, or ethically. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 4, Section 4.2.1.1, pp. 156-157.
NEW QUESTION # 573
Who should be accountable for ensuring effective cybersecurity controls are established?
- A. IT management
- B. Security management function
- C. Enterprise risk function
- D. Risk owner
Answer: B
Explanation:
According to the CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), the security management function is responsible for ensuring that effective cybersecurity controls are established and maintained. The security management function should:
* Define the cybersecurity strategy and objectives aligned with the enterprise's risk appetite and business goals
* Establish and maintain the cybersecurity policies, standards, procedures and guidelines
* Implement and monitor the cybersecurity controls and processes
* Coordinate and communicate with other stakeholders, such as risk owners, IT management, enterprise risk function, internal and external auditors, regulators and third parties
* Report on the cybersecurity performance and risk posture to senior management and the board
* Continuously improve the cybersecurity capabilities and maturity
References = CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 1: IT Risk Identification, Section 1.4: IT Risk Management Roles and Responsibilities, pp. 29-301
NEW QUESTION # 574
Which of the following are the security plans adopted by the organization?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
- A. Business continuity plan
- B. Explanation:
Organizations create different security plans to address different scenarios. Many of the security plans are common to most organizations. Most used security plans found in many organizations are: Business continuity plan Disaster recovery plan Backup plan Incident response plan - C. Disaster recovery plan
- D. Project management plan
- E. Backup plan
Answer: A,C,E
Explanation:
is incorrect. Project management plan is not a security plan, but a plan which describes the implementation of the project.
NEW QUESTION # 575
Who should be responsible for strategic decisions on risk management?
- A. Executive management team
- B. Business process owner
- C. Chief information officer (CIO)
- D. Audit committee
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 576
Which of the following is MOST effective against external threats to an organizations confidential information?
- A. Single sign-on
- B. Strong authentication
- C. Intrusion detection system
- D. Data integrity checking
Answer: B
Explanation:
Strong authentication is the most effective measure against external threats to an organization's confidential information. Confidential information is any data or information that is sensitive, proprietary, or valuable to the organization, and that should not be disclosed to unauthorized parties1. External threats are malicious actors outside the organization who attempt to gain unauthorized access to the organization's networks, systems, and data, using various methods such as malware, hacking, or social engineering2. Strong authentication is a method of verifying the identity and legitimacy of a user or device before granting access to the organization's resources or data3. Strong authentication typically involves the use of multiple factors or methods of authentication, such as passwords, tokens, biometrics, or certificates4. Strong authentication can prevent or reduce the risk of external threats to the organization's confidential information, by making it more difficult and costly for the attackers to compromise the credentials or devices of the authorized users, and by limiting the access to the data or resources that are relevant and necessary for the users' roles and responsibilities5. The other options are not the most effective measures against external threats to the organization's confidential information, as they are either less secure or less relevant than strong authentication. Single sign-on is a method of allowing a user to access multiple systems or applications with a single set of credentials, without having to log in separately for each system or application6. Single sign-on can improve the user experience and convenience, as well as reduce the administrative burden and cost of managing multiple accounts and passwords. However, single sign-on is not the most effective measure against external threats to the organization's confidential information, as it can also increase the risk of credential compromise or misuse, and create a single point of failure or attack for the attackers to access multiple systems or data. Data integrity checking is a method of ensuring that the data or information is accurate, complete, and consistent, and that it has not been altered or corrupted by unauthorized parties or processes. Data integrity checking can involve the use of techniques such as checksums, hashes, digital signatures, or encryption. Data integrity checking can enhance the quality and reliability of the data or information, as well as detect and prevent any unauthorized or malicious changes or tampering. However, data integrity checking is not the most effective measure against external threats to the organization's confidential information, as it does not prevent or reduce the risk of data theft or leakage, and it does not verify the identity or legitimacy of the users or devices accessing the data. Intrusion detection system is a system that monitors the network or system activities and events, and detects and alerts any suspicious or malicious behaviors or anomalies that may indicate an attempted or successful breach or attack. Intrusion detection system can help to identify and respond to external threats to the organization's networks, systems, and data, by providing visibility and awareness of the network or system status and activities, and by enabling timely and appropriate actions or countermeasures. However, intrusion detection system is not the most effective measure against external threats to the organization's confidential information, as it is a reactive or passive system that does not prevent or block the attacks, and it may generate false positives or negatives that can affect its accuracy and efficiency. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 4, Section
4.2.1, Page 189.
NEW QUESTION # 577
Which of the following provides the BEST evidence that risk mitigation plans have been implemented effectively?
- A. Mitigation plan progress reports
- B. Self-assessments by process owners
- C. Change in the level of residual risk
- D. Risk owner attestation
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 578
When reviewing a business continuity plan (BCP), which of the following would be the MOST significant deficiency?
- A. Recovery time objectives (RTOs) do not meet business requirements.
- B. Each business location has separate, inconsistent BCPs
- C. BCP testing is not in conjunction with the disaster recovery plan (DRP).
- D. BCP is often tested using the walk-through method.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 579
The only output of qualitative risk analysis is risk register updates. When the project manager updates the risk register he will need to include several pieces of information including all of the following except for which one?
- A. Risk probability-impact matrix
- B. Explanation:
The risk matrix is not included as part of the risk register updates. There are seven things that can
be updated in the risk register as a result of qualitative risk analysis: relating ranking of project
risks, risks grouped by categories, causes of risks, list of near-term risks, risks requiring additional
analysis, watchlist of low-priority risks, trends in qualitative risk analysis. - C. is incorrect. Watchlist of low-priority risks is part of the risk register updates.
- D. Risks grouped by categories
- E. is incorrect. Risks grouped by categories are part of the risk register updates.
- F. Trends in qualitative risk analysis
- G. Watchlist of low-priority risks
Answer: A
Explanation:
is incorrect. Trends in qualitative risk analysis are part of the risk register updates.
NEW QUESTION # 580
Which of the following elements of a risk register is MOST likely to change as a result of change in management's risk appetite?
- A. Inherent risk
- B. Risk likelihood and impact
- C. Risk velocity
- D. Key risk indicator (KRI) thresholds
Answer: D
Explanation:
Section: Volume D
Explanation/Reference:
NEW QUESTION # 581
An organization uses a vendor to destroy hard drives. Which of the following would BEST reduce the risk of data leakage?
- A. Use an accredited vendor to dispose of the hard drives
- B. Implement an encryption policy for the hard drives
- C. Require confirmation of destruction from the IT manager
- D. Require the vendor to degauss the hard drives
Answer: C
Explanation:
Section: Volume D
NEW QUESTION # 582
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To qualify for the CRISC certification exam, candidates must have at least three years of experience in the field of information systems control and risk management, with a minimum of one year of experience in each of the four domains. CRISC exam consists of 150 multiple-choice questions and is offered in English, Spanish, Chinese, and other languages. CRISC exam is administered by ISACA, a global nonprofit organization that helps professionals in the field of information systems audit, security, risk management, and governance.
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