[UPDATED 2026] Getting CISSP Certification Made Easy!
CISSP Exam Crack Test Engine Dumps Training With 1533 Questions
NEW QUESTION # 851
An application developer is deciding on the amount of idle session time that the application allows before a timeout. The BEST reason for determining the session timeout requirement is
- A. industry laws and regulations.
- B. management feedback.
- C. organization policy.
- D. industry best practices.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The session timeout requirement is the maximum amount of time that a user can be inactive on an application before the session is terminated and the user is required to re-authenticate. The best reason for determining the session timeout requirement is the organization policy, as it reflects the organization's risk appetite, security objectives, and compliance obligations. The organization policy should specify the appropriate session timeout value for different types of applications and data, based on their sensitivity and criticality12. References:
* Session Management - OWASP Cheat Sheet Series, Section: Session Timeout Implementation
* WSTG - Latest | OWASP Foundation, Section: Testing for Session Timeout
NEW QUESTION # 852
Which of the following is NOT a true statement regarding the implementaton of the 3DES modes?
- A. DES-EEE3 uses three keys
- B. DES-EDE2 uses two keys
- C. DES-EEE2 uses two keys
- D. DES-EEE1 uses one key
Answer: D
Explanation:
There is no DES mode call DES-EEE1. It does not exist.
The following are the correct modes for triple-DES (3DES):
DES-EEE3 uses three keys for encryption and the data is encrypted, encrypted, encrypted;
DES-EDE3 uses three keys and encrypts, decrypts and encrypts data.
DES-EEE2 and DES-EDE2 are the same as the previous modes, but the first and third operations
use the same key.
Reference(s) used for this question:
Shon Harris, CISSP All In One (AIO) book, 6th edition , page 808
and
Official ISC2 Guide to the CISSP CBK, 2nd Edition (2010) , page 344-345
NEW QUESTION # 853
A security consultant has been hired by a company to establish its vulnerability management program. The consultant is now in the deployment phase. Which of the following tasks is part of this process?
- A. Determine a budget and cost analysis for the program.
- B. Educate and train key stakeholders.
- C. Select and procure supporting technologies.
- D. Measure effectiveness of the program's stated goals.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Selecting and procuring supporting technologies is a task that is part of the deployment phase of establishing a vulnerability management program. A vulnerability management program is a systematic and proactive approach to identifying, assessing, and mitigating the vulnerabilities that may affect the organization's information systems and assets. A vulnerability management program consists of several phases, such as planning, design, deployment, operation, and improvement. The deployment phase is the phase where the vulnerability management program is implemented and executed, using the resources and the technologies that are required to support the program. One of the tasks in the deployment phase is to select and procure the supporting technologies, such as the tools, the software, the hardware, and the services that are needed to perform the vulnerability scanning, the vulnerability analysis, the vulnerability reporting, and the vulnerability remediation. Selecting and procuring the supporting technologies can help ensure that the vulnerability management program is effective, efficient, and reliable, and that it meets the organization's security and business objectives.
NEW QUESTION # 854
In a stateful inspection firewall, data packets are captured by an inspection engine that is operating at the:
- A. Network or Transport Layer.
- B. Application Layer.
- C. Data Link Layer.
- D. Inspection Layer.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A stateful firewall filters traffic based on OSI Layer 3 (Network layer) and Layer 4 (Transport layer).
Incorrect Answers:
B: A stateful firewall does not operate at the Application layer. It work at the Network or Transport Layer.
C: There is no inspection layer in the OSI model.
D: A stateful firewall does not operate at the Data link layer. It work at the Network or Transport Layer.
References:
Conrad, Eric, Seth Misenar and Joshua Feldman, CISSP Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Syngress, Waltham,
2012, p. 63
NEW QUESTION # 855
In a dispersed network that lacks central control, which of the following is die PRIMARY course of action to mitigate exposure?
- A. Implement security policies and standards, access controls, and access limitations
- B. Implement remote access policies, shared workstations, and log management
- C. Implement security policies and standards, data backups, and audit controls
- D. Implement management policies, audit control, and data backups
Answer: A
Explanation:
In a dispersed network that lacks central control, the primary course of action to mitigate exposure is to implement security policies and standards, access controls, and access limitations. A dispersed network is a network that consists of multiple nodes or devices that are geographically distributed and connected by various communication channels, such as the internet, satellite, or cellular networks. A dispersed network may lack central control due to the diversity of the nodes, the autonomy of the users, or the absence of a central authority. This can pose security challenges, such as inconsistent configurations, unauthorized access, or data leakage. To mitigate these risks, the organization should implement security policies and standards that define the security objectives, requirements, and responsibilities for the dispersed network. The organization should also implement access controls and access limitations that restrict who, what, when, where, and how the dispersed network can be accessed and used. References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 4: Communication and Network Security, page 156; [Official (ISC)2 CISSP CBK Reference, Fifth Edition, Chapter 4: Communication and Network Security, page 230]
NEW QUESTION # 856
Signature identification systems analyze what areas of an individual's signature?
- A. All of the choices EXCEPT the signing rate.
- B. The signature rate.
- C. The specific features of the signature.
- D. The specific features of the process of signing one's signature.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Signature identification systems analyze two different areas of an individual's signature: the specific features of the signature and specific features of the process of signing one's signature. Features that are taken into account and measured include speed, pen pressure, directions, stroke length, and the points in time when the pen is lifted from the paper.
NEW QUESTION # 857
What are the methods used in the process of facial identification?
- A. Scanning and recognition.
- B. Detection and scanning.
- C. None of the choices.
- D. Detection and recognition.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The process of facial identification incorporates two significant methods: detection and recognition.
NEW QUESTION # 858
The IP header contains a protocol field. If this field contains the value of 6, what type of data is contained within the ip datagram?
- A. UDP
- B. ICMP
- C. TCP
- D. IGMP
Answer: C
Explanation:
ICMP = 1 TCP = 6 UDP = 17
Pg. 55 Casad: Sams Teach Yourself TCP/IP in 24 hrs.
NEW QUESTION # 859
A type of preventive/physical access control is:
- A. Motion detectors
- B. Biometrics for authentication
- C. An intrusion detection system
- D. Biometrics for identification
Answer: D
Explanation:
Biometrics applied to identification of an individual is a one-tomany
search where an individual's physiological or behavioral
characteristics are compared to a database of stored information. An
example would be trying to match a person's fingerprints to a set in a
national database of fingerprints. This search differs from the biometrics search for authentication in answer "Biometrics for authentication". That search would be a one-to-one comparison of a person's physiological or behavioral characteristics with their corresponding entry in an authentication database. Answer "motion detectors" is a type of detective physical
control and answer d is a detective/technical control.
NEW QUESTION # 860
Which of the following is true about a "dry pipe" sprinkler system?
- A. It reduces the likelihood of the sprinkler system pipes freezing.
- B. It uses less water than "wet pipe" systems.
- C. It is a substitute for carbon dioxide systems.
- D. It maximizes chances of accidental discharge of water.
Answer: A
Explanation:
A dry pipe system is used in areas where the water in the pipes is subject to freezing, and to minimize the chances of accidental discharge of water if the pipes would freeze in the winter time, and It minimizes chances of accidental discharge of water as well by not releasing the water until the pressure in the pipe would drop due to one of the sprinkler head being opened.
A Dry Pipe system has the water being held back from charging the sprinkler pipe system by a special kind of check valve called a "dry pipe valve" or "clapper valve". A dry pipe system is also a system which the pipes are filled with pressurized air or nitrogen rather than water. The air uses a mechanical advantage which holds back a device known as a dry pipe valve or clapper valve that prevent the water from getting into the pipe when it is pressurized. A small amount of water, called priming water, is also inside the dry pipe system, which is filled with either air or nitrogen under pressure.
The sprinkler pipe system is filled with pressurized air or nitrogen, which keeps the dry pipe valve closed using mechanical advantage. When any of the sprinkler valves open, the pressurized air or nitrogen is released, and the dropping pressure permits the dry pipe valve to open. It's primary use is to protect the sprinkler pipes from freezing.
A Wet Pipe system has the pipes always charged with water, and the thermal-fusible link in each sprinkler head is holding back the water. If any sprinkler head is exposed to enough heat, for long enough, the link will break/melt and water will be discharged. A wet pipe system is generally used when there is no danger of the water in the pipes freezing or when there are no special conditions that require a special purpose sprinkler system.
A Preaction Pipe system is used where accidental activation is undesired. It is similar to a Dry Pipe system, except one or more other interlocks, such as fire/heat sensors, are used in addition to sprinkler head opening and relieving the air pressure, which then permits the water to charge the sprinkler pipe system and flow through the open sprinkler head. This system has the added value of requiring a series of events before the water is actually permitted to flow, which can enable personnel to handle a small fire or incident without the flow of water.
All of the other answers were NOT true so they were wrong choices
The following reference(s) were/was used to create this question: Shon Harris, AIO v5, pg 444-445 and Ronald Krutz adn Russell Vines, The CISSP and CAP Prep Guide, pg 530
NEW QUESTION # 861
System reliability is increased by:
- A. A higher MTBF and a higher MTTR.
- B. A lower MTBF and a higher MTTR.
- C. A higher MTBF and a lower MTTR.
- D. A lower MTBF and a lower MTTR.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
In general, reliability (systemic def.) is the ability of a person or system to perform and maintain its functions in routine circumstances, as well as hostile or unexpected circumstances. Mean-time-between failure (MTBF) is the average length of time the hardware is functional without failure. Mean-time-to-repair is the amount of time it takes to repair and resume normal operation after a failure has occurred. Having a higher MTBF and a lower MTTR will increase the reliability of a piece of equipment, thus the system's overall reliability.
References: VALLABHANENI, S. Rao, CISSP Examination Textbooks, Volume 2: Practice, SRV Professional Publications, 2002, Chapter 8, Business Continuity Planning & Disaster Recovery Planning (page 496).
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Reliability.
NEW QUESTION # 862
The PRIMARY outcome of a certification process is that it provides documented
- A. security analyses needed to make a risk-based decision.
- B. system weakness for remediation.
- C. interconnected systems and their implemented security controls.
- D. standards for security assessment, testing, and process evaluation.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Section: Software Development Security
Explanation
NEW QUESTION # 863
The disaster recovery (DR) process should always include
- A. financial data analysis.
- B. periodic vendor review.
- C. periodic inventory review.
- D. plan maintenance.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 864
Which of the following statements is most accurate regarding a digital signature?
- A. It allows the recipient of data to prove the source and integrity of data.
- B. It can be used as a signature system and a cryptosystem.
- C. It is the art of transferring handwritten signature to electronic media.
- D. It is a method used to encrypt confidential data.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Source: TIPTON, Hal, (ISC)2, Introduction to the CISSP Exam presentation.
NEW QUESTION # 865
How many bits is the address space reserved for the source IP address within an IPv6 header?
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
Answer: A
Explanation:
Discussion: An IPv6 address space is 128 bits or:
2128 = 340,282,366,920,938,463,463,374,607,431,768,211,456
When IPv4 was conceived in the late 1970s they thought that we would never need 4.3
Billion addresses but we ran out of them years ago. It is not likely that we will ever run out of addresses any time soon with numbers like those.
We've gotten by with IPv4 by using NAT - Network Address Translation where private IP
Addresses are used by a single or a few externally routable IP Addresses.
Unfortunately, early on companies were given huge blocks of address spaces like class A networks with 224 or 16,777,216 addresses even when only a small handful were used within the company. Also, 127.0.0.0 loopback wasted as many.
IPv6 addresses are written in 8 groups of 4 hexadecimal digits separated by colons like this:
2001:0db8:85a3:0000:0000:8a2e:0370:7334
What is an IPv6 Header?
An Internet Protocol version 6 (IPv6) data packet comprises of two main parts: the header and the payload. The first 40 bytes/octets (40x8 = 320 bits) of an IPv6 packet comprise of the header (see Figure 1) that contains the following fields:
IPv6
Source address (128 bits) The 128-bit source address field contains the IPv6 address of the originating node of the packet. It is the address of the originator of the IPv6 packet.
Destination address (128 bits) The 128-bit contains the destination address of the recipient node of the IPv6 packet. It is the address of the intended recipient of the IPv6 packet.
Version/IP version (4-bits) The 4-bit version field contains the number 6. It indicates the version of the IPv6 protocol. This field is the same size as the IPv4 version field that contains the number 4. However, this field has a limited use because IPv4 and IPv6 packets are not distinguished based on the value in the version field but by the protocol type present in the layer 2 envelope.
Packet priority/Traffic class (8 bits) The 8-bit Priority field in the IPv6 header can assume different values to enable the source node to differentiate between the packets generated by it by associating different delivery priorities to them. This field is subsequently used by the originating node and the routers to identify the data packets that belong to the same traffic class and distinguish between packets with different priorities.
Flow Label/QoS management (20 bits) The 20-bit flow label field in the IPv6 header can be used by a source to label a set of packets belonging to the same flow. A flow is uniquely identified by the combination of the source address and of a non-zero Flow label. Multiple active flows may exist from a source to a destination as well as traffic that are not associated with any flow (Flow label = 0).
The IPv6 routers must handle the packets belonging to the same flow in a similar fashion.
The information on handling of IPv6 data packets belonging to a given flow may be specified within the data packets themselves or it may be conveyed by a control protocol such as the RSVP (Resource reSerVation Protocol).
When routers receive the first packet of a new flow, they can process the information carried by the IPv6 header, Routing header, and Hop-by-Hop extension headers, and store the result (e.g. determining the retransmission of specific IPv6 data packets) in a cache memory and use the result to route all other packets belonging to the same flow (having the same source address and the same Flow Label), by using the data stored in the cache memory.
Payload length in bytes(16 bits) The 16-bit payload length field contains the length of the data field in octets/bits following the IPv6 packet header. The 16-bit Payload length field puts an upper limit on the maximum packet payload to 64 kilobytes. In case a higher packet payload is required, a Jumbo payload extension header is provided in the IPv6 protocol. A
Jumbo payload (Jumbogram) is indicated by the value zero in the Payload Length field.
Jumbograms are frequently used in supercomputer communication using the IPv6 protocol to transmit heavy data payload.
Next Header (8 bits) The 8-bit Next Header field identifies the type of header immediately following the IPv6 header and located at the beginning of the data field (payload) of the
IPv6 packet. This field usually specifies the transport layer protocol used by a packet's payload. The two most common kinds of Next Headers are TCP (6) and UDP (17), but many other headers are also possible. The format adopted for this field is the one proposed for IPv4 by RFC 1700. In case of IPv6 protocol, the Next Header field is similar to the IPv4
Protocol field.
Time To Live (TTL)/Hop Limit (8 bits) The 8-bit Hop Limit field is decremented by one, by each node (typically a router) that forwards a packet. If the Hop Limit field is decremented to zero, the packet is discarded. The main function of this field is to identify and to discard packets that are stuck in an indefinite loop due to any routing information errors. The 8-bit field also puts an upper limit on the maximum number of links between two IPv6 nodes. In this way, an IPv6 data packet is allowed a maximum of 255 hops before it is eventually discarded. An IPv6 data packet can pas through a maximum of 254 routers before being discarded.
In case of IPv6 protocol, the fields for handling fragmentation do not form a part of the basic header. They are put into a separate extension header. Moreover, fragmentation is exclusively handled by the sending host. Routers are not employed in the Fragmentation process.
For further details, please see RFC 2460 - Internet Protocol, Version 6 (IPv6) Specification.
The following answers are incorrect:
- 32: This answer would be right if the question was about IPv4 but it isn't so the answer is wrong. 32 Bits yields 4,294,967,296 unique IP Address and considering the RFC for that was released in 1981, IPv4 has proven to have a remarkable lifespan. After more than 30 years and the huge growth the internet it's no wonder its lifespan is coming to an end.
- 64: This is only half the size of an IPv6 header address space so this isn't correct. 64 Bits would yield a huge number of addresses which probably would have been enough but designers wanted to be sure to never ever run out of addresses on planet earth with 128-bit address spaces in IPv6.
- 256: This isn't correct because 256 is twice the size of an IPv6 address size, far to many addresses necessary at this or any other point in time.
The following reference(s) was used to create this question:
Gregg, Michael; Haines, Billy (2012-02-16). CASP: CompTIA Advanced Security
Practitioner Study Guide Authorized Courseware: Exam CAS-001 (p. 53). Wiley. Kindle
Edition.
NEW QUESTION # 866
Which one of the following statements is TRUE concerning the Terminal
Access Controller Access Control System (TACACS) and TACACS+?
- A. TACACS employs tokens for two-factor, dynamic password
authentication. - B. TACACS supports prompting for a password change.
- C. TACACS+ employs tokens for two-factor, dynamic password
authentication. - D. TACACS+ employs a user ID and static password.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The correct answer is "TACACS+ employs tokens for two-factor, dynamic password authentication".
TACACS employs a user ID and static password and does not support prompting for password change or the use of dynamic password tokens.
NEW QUESTION # 867
Which of the following statements pertaining to ethical hacking is incorrect?
- A. Ethical hacking should not involve writing to or modifying the target systems negatively.
- B. Ethical hackers never use tools that have the potential of affecting servers or services.
- C. Testing should be done remotely to simulate external threats.
- D. An organization should use ethical hackers who do not sell auditing, hardware, software, firewall, hosting, and/or networking services.
Answer: B
Explanation:
This means that many of the tools used for ethical hacking have the potential of exploiting vulnerabilities and causing disruption to IT system. It is up to the individuals performing the tests to be familiar with their use and to make sure that no such disruption can happen or at least shoudl be avoided.
The first step before sending even one single packet to the target would be to have a signed agreement with clear rules of engagement and a signed contract. The signed contract explains to the client the associated risks and the client must agree to them before you even send one packet to the target range. This way the client understand that some of the test could lead to interruption of service or even crash a server. The client signs that he is aware of such risks and willing to accept them.
The following are incorrect answers:
An organization should use ethical hackers who do not sell auditing, hardware, software, firewall, hosting, and/or networking services. An ethical hacking firm's independence can be questioned if they sell security solutions at the same time as doing testing for the same client. There has to be independance between the judge (the tester) and the accuse (the client).
Testing should be done remotely to simulate external threats Testing simulating a cracker from the Internet is often time one of the first test being done, this is to validate perimeter security. By performing tests remotely, the ethical hacking firm emulates the hacker's approach more realistically.
Ethical hacking should not involve writing to or modifying the target systems negatively.
Even though ethical hacking should not involve negligence in writing to or modifying the target systems or reducing its response time, comprehensive penetration testing has to be performed using the most complete tools available just like a real cracker would.
Reference(s) used for this question:
KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten
Domains of Computer Security, John Wiley & Sons, 2001, Appendix F: The Case for
Ethical Hacking (page 520).
NEW QUESTION # 868
Which action is MOST effective for controlling risk and minimizing maintenance costs in the software supply chain?
- A. Selecting fewer, more reliable suppliers
- B. Selecting redundant suppliers
- C. Selecting software suppliers with the fewest known vulnerabilities
- D. Selecting suppliers based on business requirements
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 869
What is the greatest danger from DHCP?
- A. Having the wrong router used as the default gateway.
- B. An intruder on the network impersonating a DHCP server and thereby misconfiguring the DHCP clients.
- C. Having multiple clients on the same LAN having the same IP address.
- D. Having the organization's mail server unreachable.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The main security risk concerning DHCP is that unauthorized (rogue) DHCP servers offering IP configuration to DHCP clients. Rogue DHCP servers are often used in man in the middle or denial of service attacks for malicious purposes.
Incorrect Answers:
B: IP address collisions are not a major security risk.
C: Incorrect default gateway is not a major security problem compared to a rogue DHCP Server.
D: An unreachable mail server is not a main security concern compared to the damage a rogue DHCP server can do.
References:
Harris, Shon, All In One CISSP Exam Guide, 6th Edition, McGraw-Hill, New York, 2013, p. 598
NEW QUESTION # 870
Which type of access control includes a system that allows only users that are type=managers and department=sales to access employee records?
- A. Discretionary access control (DAC)
- B. Role-based access control (RBAC)
- C. Attribute-based access control (ABAC)
- D. Mandatory access control (MAC)
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 871
Which of the following is a reason to use manual patch installation instead of automated patch management?
- A. The time during which systems will remain vulnerable to an exploit will be decreased.
- B. The likelihood of system or application incompatibilities will be decreased.
- C. The ability to cover large geographic areas is increased.
- D. The cost required to install patches will be reduced.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Manual patch installation allows for thorough testing before deployment to ensure that the patch does not introduce new vulnerabilities or incompatibilities. Automated patch management can sometimes lead to unexpected issues if patches are not fully compatible with all systems and applications12 References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 7: Security Operations, p. 452; Official (ISC)2 CISSP CBK Reference, Fifth Edition, Domain 7: Security Operations, p. 863.
NEW QUESTION # 872
Which of the following uses a directed graph to specify the rights that a subject can transfer to an object, or that a subject can take from another subject?
- A. Take-Grant model
- B. Biba model
- C. Access Matrix model
- D. Bell-Lapadula model
Answer: A
Explanation:
The Take-Grant System is a model that helps in determining the protection rights (e.g., read or write) in a computer system. The Take-Grant system was introduced by
Jones, Lipton, and Snyder to show that it is possible to decide on the safety of a computer system even when the number of subjects and objects are very large, or unbound. This can be accomplished in linear time based on the initial size of the system. The take-grant system models a protection system which consists of a set of states and state transitions. A directed graph shows the connections between the nodes of this system. These nodes are representative of the subjects or objects of the model. The directed edges between the nodes represent the rights that one node has over the linked node.
NEW QUESTION # 873
Kerberos depends upon what encryption method?
- A. Blowfish cryptography.
- B. El Gamal cryptography.
- C. Secret Key cryptography.
- D. Public Key cryptography.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Kerberos depends on Secret Keys or Symmetric Key cryptography.
Kerberos a third party authentication protocol. It was designed and developed in the mid
1980's by MIT. It is considered open source but is copyrighted and owned by MIT. It relies on the user's secret keys. The password is used to encrypt and decrypt the keys.
This question asked specifically about encryption methods. Encryption methods can be
SYMMETRIC (or secret key) in which encryption and decryption keys are the same, or
ASYMMETRIC (aka 'Public Key') in which encryption and decryption keys differ.
'Public Key' methods must be asymmetric, to the extent that the decryption key CANNOT be easily derived from the encryption key. Symmetric keys, however, usually encrypt more efficiently, so they lend themselves to encrypting large amounts of data. Asymmetric encryption is often limited to ONLY encrypting a symmetric key and other information that is needed in order to decrypt a data stream, and the remainder of the encrypted data uses the symmetric key method for performance reasons. This does not in any way diminish the security nor the ability to use a public key to encrypt the data, since the symmetric key method is likely to be even MORE secure than the asymmetric method.
For symmetric key ciphers, there are basically two types: BLOCK CIPHERS, in which a fixed length block is encrypted, and STREAM CIPHERS, in which the data is encrypted one 'data unit' (typically 1 byte) at a time, in the same order it was received in.
The following answers are incorrect:
Public Key cryptography. Is incorrect because Kerberos depends on Secret Keys or
Symmetric Key cryptography and not Public Key or Asymmetric Key cryptography.
El Gamal cryptography. Is incorrect because El Gamal is an Asymmetric Key encryption algorithm.
Blowfish cryptography. Is incorrect because Blowfish is a Symmetric Key encryption algorithm.
References:
OIG CBK Access Control (pages 181 - 184)
AIOv3 Access Control (pages 151 - 155)
Wikipedia http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Blowfish_%28cipher%29 ;
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/El_Gamal
http://www.mrp3com/encrypt.html
NEW QUESTION # 874
An intranet provides more security and control than which of the following:
- A. public posting on the Extranet.
- B. private posting on the Internet.
- C. public posting on the Ethernet.
- D. public posting on the Internet.
Answer: D
Explanation:
An intranet provides more security and control than a public posting on the
Internet.
Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the
Ten Domains of Computer Security, 2001, John Wiley & Sons, Page 99.
NEW QUESTION # 875
Which of the following is a true statement pertaining to memory addressing?
- A. The CPU uses absolute addresses. Applications use relative addresses. Logical addresses are based on a known address and an offset value.
- B. The CPU uses logical addresses. Applications use absolute addresses. Relative addresses are based on a known address and an offset value.
- C. The CPU uses absolute addresses. Applications use logical addresses. Relative addresses are based on a known address and an offset value.
- D. The CPU uses absolute addresses. Applications use logical addresses. Absolute addresses are based on a known address and an offset value.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The physical memory addresses that the CPU uses are called absolute addresses. The indexed memory addresses that software uses are referred to as logical addresses. A \relative address is a logical address which incorporates the correct offset value.
Incorrect Answers:
B: Relative addresses are based on a known address and an offset value.
C: Logical addresses are based on a known address and an offset value.
D: Absolute addresses are based on a known address and an offset value.
References:
Harris, Shon (2012-10-18). CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, 6th Edition (p. 330). McGraw- Hill. Kindle Edition.
NEW QUESTION # 876
......
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